We Know D^n {cos 2x} = 2^n cos (npi/2 + 2x)
Here n = 50
y ^50 [50 th derivative of y] = 2^50 cos (50 pi/2 + 2x)
= 2^50 cos (25 pi + 2x)
= – 2^50 cos 2x
This was an answer someone posted previously… I don’t understand how they got there… also in general… is there a rule to follow to find a very high derivative for any function.
Thank you!
4 Answers
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There are various ways to think about it. Here’s one.
y = cos(2x)
dy/dx = -2sin(2x)
Note to get the derivative we have multiplied the original function by -2 and changed cos to sin.
dy/dx = -2sin(2x) (from previous step)
d²y/dx² = -4cos(2x)
Note to get the new derivative we have multiplied the previous dervative by 2 and changed sin to cos.
d³y/dx³ = 8sin(2x)
Note to get the new derivative we have multiplied the previous derivative by -2 and changed cos to sin.
d⁴y/dx ⁴ = 16cos(2x)
Note to get the new derivative we have multiplied the previous derivative by 2 and changed sin to cos.
After 4 differentiations we are back to (2⁴ = 16 times) the original function. The steps involved were:
A. Multiply by -2. Change cos to sin.
B. Multiply by 2. Change sin to cos.
C. Multiply by -2. Change cos to sin.
D. Multiply by 2. Change sin to cos.
If we differentiate 48 times we will go through 12 lots A-D, so we know
d⁴⁸y/dx⁴⁸ = (2⁴)¹²cos(2x)
. . . . . . . = 2⁴⁸cos(2x)
If we differentiate 2 more times (follow steps A and B)
d⁴⁹y/dx⁴⁹ = -2*2⁴⁸sin(2x) = -2⁴⁹sin(2x)
d⁵⁰y/dx⁵⁰ = 2 * (-2⁴⁹cos(2x)) = -2⁵⁰cos(2x)
Of course you don’t have to write out all that – just be able to see and apply the pattern
There is no general method for finding high order derivative – you have to find a pattern
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y=cos(2x)
=>
y ‘=-2sin(2x)=
2cos[pi/2)+2x]
=>
y”=-(2^2)cos(2x)=
(2^2)cos[2(pi/2)+2x]
=>
y”‘=2^3sin(2x)=
(2^3)cos[(3pi/2)+2x]
————–
=>
y^(n)=[2^(n)]cos[(npi/2)+2x]
=>
y^(50)=[2^(50)]cos[25pi+2x]
=>
y^(50)= -[2^(50)]cos(2x)
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That D^n formula for cos ax is nice, and there’s a similar rule for sin ax, but there really isn’t anything like that for the other trig functions. It’s based on the property that (cos x)’ is just a shifted version of cos x:
(cos x)’ = -sin x = cos (x – pi/2)
(cos ax)’ = -sin ax * a = a cos (ax – pi/2)
[cos (ax+b)]’ = -sin (ax+b) * a = a cos(ax + b – pi/2)
let b = -n*pi/2 and
[a^n cos (ax – n*pi/2)]’ = a^n * a cos(ax – n*pi/2 – pi/2)
= a^(n+1) cos [ax – (n+1)*pi/2]
That’s the core of an inductive proof of the formula. When n=0 that amounts to:
(cos ax)’ = a cos (ax – pi/2)
…and that’s the “base case” for the proof by induction.
The other trig functions don’t have such a simple relation between f(x) and f'(x), so taking nth derivatives is very much messier.
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i) y = cos(2x) [Given]
ii) Differentiating, y₁ = -2*sin(2x) = 2*cos(π/2 + 2x), since cos(π/2 + u) =sin(u), by complementary relation
Differentiating the above again, y₂ = -2*2*sin(π/2 + 2x) = 4*cos{(π/2) + (π/2 + 2x)} = 4*cos{2*(π/2) + 2x}
= 2²*cos{2*(π/2) + 2x}
In similar lines of the above, differentiating again,
y₃ = 2³*cos{3*(π/2) + 2x}
So of the above, nth derivative = (2^n)*cos{n*(π/2) + 2x}
iii) Hence for 50th derivative, substitute, n = 50 in the above,
50th derivative = (2^50)*cos{50*(π/2) + 2x} = (2^50)*cos{(25π) + 2x} = -(2^50)*cos(2x)